(a) $\frac{1}{f} = \left( \frac{\mu_{g}}{\mu_{m}} - 1 \right)\left( \frac{1}{R_{1}} - \frac{1}{R_{2}} \right)$ Here $f = \infty$ So $\frac{1}{f} = 0\ \therefore\ \mu_{g} = \mu_{m}$
Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist
Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.