Q. If $x\cos{\theta = y\cos\left( \theta + \frac{2\pi}{3} \right)} = z\cos\left( \theta + \frac{4\pi}{3} \right)$, then the value of $\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} + \frac{1}{z}$ is equal to

A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) $3\cos\theta$
Explanation

(c)
$x\cos{\theta = y\cos\left( \theta + \frac{2\pi}{3} \right)}$
$= z\cos\left( \theta + \frac{4\pi}{3} \right) = k$ (say)
$\Rightarrow \ \cos{\theta = \frac{k}{x}},\cos\left( \theta + \frac{2\pi}{3} \right) = \frac{k}{y}$
And $\cos\left( \theta + \frac{4\pi}{3} \right) = \frac{k}{z}$
Hence, $\frac{k}{x} + \frac{k}{y} + \frac{k}{z} = \cos{\theta + \cos{\left( \theta + \frac{2\pi}{3} \right) + \cos\left( \theta + \frac{4\pi}{3} \right)}}$
$= \cos{\theta - \cos\left( \frac{\pi}{3} - \theta \right) - \cos\left( \frac{\pi}{3} + \theta \right)}$
$= \cos{\theta - 2\cos{\frac{\pi}{3}\cos{\theta = 0}}}$

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.