Q. If the roots of the equation $\frac{1}{x + p} + \frac{1}{x + q} = \frac{1}{r},\ (x \neq - p,\ x \neq - q,\ r \neq 0)$ are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then $p + q$ is equal to

A) $r$
B) $2r$
C) $r^{2}$
D) $\frac{1}{r}$
Explanation

(b)
Given, $\frac{1}{x + p} + \frac{1}{x + q} = \frac{1}{r}$
$\Rightarrow r(2x + p + q) = \left\lbrack x^{2} + (p + q)x + pq \right\rbrack$
$\Rightarrow x^{2} + (p + q - 2r)x + pq - r(p + q) = 0$
As we know, if roots are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then coefficient of $x$ will be zero
$\therefore\ \ \ p + q - 2r = 0\ \ \Rightarrow p + q = 2r$

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.