(b)
Given, $\frac{1}{x + p} + \frac{1}{x + q} = \frac{1}{r}$
$\Rightarrow r(2x + p + q) = \left\lbrack x^{2} + (p + q)x + pq \right\rbrack$
$\Rightarrow x^{2} + (p + q - 2r)x + pq - r(p + q) = 0$
As we know, if roots are equal in magnitude but opposite in sign, then coefficient of $x$ will be zero
$\therefore\ \ \ p + q - 2r = 0\ \ \Rightarrow p + q = 2r$