Q. Let $f(x) = \left\{ \begin{array}{r} 1,\ when\ x\ is\ rational \\ 0,\ when\ x\ irrational \end{array} \right.\$, then $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}{f(x)}$ is

A) 0
B) 1
C) $\frac{1}{2}$
D) None of these
Explanation

(b)
LHL$= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{-}}{f(x)} = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0}{f(0 - h)} = 1$
[$\because(0 - h)$ is rational]
RHL$= \lim_{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}{f(x)} = \lim_{h \rightarrow 0}{f(0 + h)} = 1$
[$\because(0 + h)$ is rational]
Hence, LHL=RHL=1

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.