Q. $\sim(p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \land q)$ is logically equivalent to
A) $\sim p$
B) $p$
C) $q$
D) $\sim q$
Explanation
(a)
$\sim (p \vee q) \vee ( \sim p \land q) \equiv ( \sim p \land \sim q) \vee ( \sim p \land q)$
$\equiv \sim p \land ( \sim q \vee q) \equiv \sim p \land t \equiv \sim p$
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker
Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist
Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.