Q. For any two statements $p$ and $q$, $\sim(p \vee q) \vee (\sim p \land q)$is logically equivalent to

A) $p$
B) $\sim p$
C) $q$
D) $\sim q$
Explanation

(b)
$\sim (p \vee q) \vee ( \sim p \land q)$
$\equiv ( \sim p \land \sim q) \vee ( \sim p \land q)$
$\equiv \sim p \land ( \sim q \vee q)$
$\equiv \sim p$

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.