Q. If $y = (\log_{\cos x}\sin{x)(\log_{\sin x}\cos{x) + \sin^{- 1}\frac{2x}{1 + x^{2}},}then\frac{dy}{dx}\ at\ x = \frac{\pi}{2}}$ is equal to

A) $\frac{8}{(4 + \pi^{2})}$
B) 0
C) $- \frac{8}{(4 + \pi^{2})}$
D) None of the above
Explanation

(d)
Given, $y = (\log_{\cos x}{\sin{x)(\log_{\sin x}{\cos{x) + \sin^{- 1}\frac{2x}{1 + x^{2}}}}}}$
At $x = \frac{\pi}{2},\log_{\sin x}\$cos x is not defined.
Hence, we cannot determined the derivative at $x = \frac{\pi}{2}$.

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.