Q. $\sin^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} + 2\tan^{- 1}\frac{1}{3}}$ is equal to

A) $\frac{\pi}{3}$
B) $\frac{\pi}{4}$
C) $\frac{\pi}{2}$
D) 0
Explanation

(c)
$\sin^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} + 2\tan^{- 1}{\frac{1}{3} = \sin^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} + \tan^{- 1}\frac{2\left( \frac{1}{3} \right)}{1 - \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^{2}}}}}$
$= \sin^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} + \tan^{- 1}{\frac{3}{4} = \sin^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} + \cos^{- 1}{\frac{4}{5} = \frac{\pi}{2}}}}}$
$\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \left\lbrack \because\sin^{- 1}{x + \cos^{- 1}{x = \frac{\pi}{2}}} \right\rbrack$

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.