Q. If $\alpha>\beta>\gamma>0$, then the expression $\cot^{-1}\left\{\beta+\frac{(1+\beta^2)}{(\alpha-\beta)}\right\}+\cot^{-1}\left\{\gamma+\frac{(1+\gamma^2)}{(\beta-\gamma)}\right\}+\cot^{-1}\left\{\alpha+\frac{(1+\alpha^2)}{(\gamma-\alpha)}\right\}$ is equal to :

A) $\pi$
B) 0
C) $\frac\pi2-(\alpha+\beta+\gamma)$
D) $3\pi$
Explanation

[Solution by Dr. Abubacker] $\beta+\frac{1+\beta^2}{\alpha-\beta}=\frac{1+\alpha\beta}{\alpha-\beta}$, so the first term is $\tan^{-1}\frac{\alpha-\beta}{1+\alpha\beta}=\tan^{-1}\alpha-\tan^{-1}\beta$. Similarly the second is $\tan^{-1}\beta-\tan^{-1}\gamma$. The third has a negative argument $\frac{1+\alpha\gamma}{\gamma-\alpha}$, so it equals $\pi+\tan^{-1}\gamma-\tan^{-1}\alpha$. The sum is $\pi$. Answer (1).

Dr. Abubacker
Reviewed by Dr. Abubacker

Physics Educator & NEET/JEE Specialist

Ph.D. in Physics with 19+ years of teaching experience.

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