In [0, 1] Lagranges Mean value theorem is NOT applicable to |
a) | b) |
c) | d) |
(a)For Lagranges Mean value theorem we know, should be continuous in [a, b] and differentiable in] a, b [.Which is clearly not differentiable at at LHD at Lagranges Mean Value is not applicable.Where option, (b), (c), (d) are continuous and differentiable. |